Saturday, October 11, 2008

Understanding the Different Tabernacle Typologies of Hebrews and Revelation

The typology of the tabernacle as presented by the authors of Hebrews and Revelation at first seems to be in direct conflict.

In Hebrews, the first tabernacle, or Holy Place, was manifest only to emphasize that man, specifically the priests, could not enter into the Holy of Holies. The signification of this is that man could not enter into the true Holy of Holies, Heaven. But Jesus Christ, through his personal sacrifice and blood and torn flesh (Hebr 10:20) has made a way for us to enter (Hebr 10:19). The Holy of Holies is the place of the presence of God. Therefore the ability of man to enter into the Holy of Holies, the very presence and throneroom of God, occurred at the death (the lamb sacrifice), resurrection and ascension (to act as High Priest) of Christ.

Revelation, in contrast, paints a significantly different picture of Heaven. It is at first very similar to the temple and tabernacle. It has an altar, a sea of glass (laver), a holy place, lamp of fire (menorah), altar of incense, throne / ark of covenant, & four beasts (cherubim). But at the end of Revelation the picture of Heaven is quite different. There “is noTemple,” for the Lamb is the temple. This is further confirmed, for it is only at the seventh trumpet that the temple in heaven is opened and the ark is seen inside (Rev 11:19).

After the parousia, heaven is compared instead to the Garden of Eden where Adam walked freely with God. But all this occurred after the Parousia (Rev 19-22). NOT when Christ ascended. It is only after Christ’s Parousia that the is the Bride presented (Rev 21:2), implying that she can be one with Christ in the bridal chamber, the Holy of Holies.

So in Hebrews, heaven was represented as the Holy of Holies, and the way to God is made manifest sometime after the ascension of Christ. In Revelation, the heavenly tabernacle included the inner court, the holy place and the Holy of Holies. Although saints are seen in the inner court at the altar (Rev 6:9) and sea of glass (Rev 15:2) and the holy place (Rev 7:15), but cannot enter into the Holy of Holies until the Parousia (the door is closed before the parousia, Rev 11:19).

In Hebrews the Heavenly tabernacle never had a holy place, only the Holy of Holies. In Revelation, the Heavenly tabernacle contained all three compartments, until the Parousia when the ‘new heaven’ only contained the Holy of Holies (or that all compartments were removed).

The two accounts seem in direct conflict. Surely the way could not have been manifested at the accension of Christ, just to be closed off again before the Parousia. Why are the typologies so different?

But notice this from Revelation as John addresses his audience:
Reve 1:5 And from Jesus Christ, [who is] the faithful witness, [and] the first begotten of the dead, and the prince of the kings of the earth. Unto him that loved us, and washed us from our sins in his own blood,
Reve 1:6 And hath made us kings and priests unto God and his Father; to him [be] glory and dominion for ever and ever. Amen.
Reve 1:7 Behold, he cometh with clouds; and every eye shall see him, and they [also] which pierced him: and all kindreds of the earth shall wail because of him. Even so, Amen.

First we are given the timing…the phrase “was, and is, and is to come” places us somewhere between Christ’s death/resurrection and his return (Rev 1:7). So this in every way, shape, and form is the transitory time in which sections of heaven are cordoned off. But notice that the theology of John’s is similar to the author’s of Revelation. They both emphasize that the washing of sins (and the purchase of man – see Rev 5:9) occurred at the cross. In this they agree perfectly.

But the question is ‘how did the author of Revelation interpret how this affects the individual,’ versus how the author of Hebrews, and do they conflict? Notice that in Revelation those composing the seven churches are made kings and priests (or kingdom of priests depending on the translation). And yet they are not in heaven yet. In other words, after receiving the blood and being bought by Christ are now considered priests. Priests are set apart. Priests perform the duties of God. Priests worship and serve God. But also, priests can enter into the Holy Place. Now I call to the remembrance of the reader that in the typology of the book of Revelation, the holy place is a part of Heaven (as opposed to the typology of the book of Hebrews). So in essence, what the author of Revelation is conveying is that we (whether Jews or Gentiles, see Rev 5:9) no longer need a priest to enter into heavenly places. But the author of Revelation stills sees that there are degrees of separation, as in the earthly tabernacle.

Is the author of Hebrews mistaken? Absolutely not. His typology is different because he is addressing a different audience for a different purpose. Revelation was addressed to the Church regarding the last times. Although never explicitly stated, it is assumed that the book of Hebrews was addressed to the Hebrews, showing why the sacrifice and person of Jesus Christ was superior to their sacrifices and priesthood. Thus the author of Hebrews is not concerned with the details of Heaven, but desired to show the Hebrews that their own tabernacle emphasized their ultimate separation from God. He was showing why their priesthood and sacrifice would never be permanent and how Christ’s was both perfect and permanent. In his typology, the mere fact that they had two tabernacles (the holy and holy of holies) testified that they would always be separated from God. It was only through the person of Jesus Christ that the separation could be removed.

If we stop the story there, then we would conclude that after the great High Priest Jesus Christ entered the Holy of Holies with his own blood, that man could now enter into the very precense of God. But here the author of Revelation makes a distinction, not a contradiction. He follows the typology of the tabernacle in perfect parallel to the earthly. In the book of Hebrews, the Holy of Holies was “Heaven” as a whole. The author of Revelation confirms that man, through the blood of Christ, can enter into “Heaven,” but that “Heaven” was further compartmentalized into the same division as the tabernacle. In addition, that the saints could only enter up to the Holy Place within this heavenly tabernacle. Both agree that the man could now enter ‘heaven’ through the blood of Christ, but they simply describe heaven differently. To force them in the same typology is to commit error and engender confusion.

You may ask why does the analogy break down (why can’t the holy of holies by consistent in both)? It is because that ultimately John was using a different analogy than the author of Hebrews. In Revelation, Christ is the bridegroom who prepares the home and bridal chamber for the bride. The bride certainly cannot enter the bridal chamber until they are married, ie: after the marriage supper. Once they are married, the bride and Christ are one, no longer needing the separate divisions in Heaven.

So are the two typologies in conflict? No. Different Audience. Different Purpose. Different Analogies. But the conclusion is simple. The author of Revelation saw Heaven as divided as in the earthly tabernacle, thus there was a degree of separation between God and man until the Parousia. It was at the Parousia that the bride was taken to the bridal chamber to become one with her husband, Jesus Christ. It was then that heaven was finally opened up to become the new Garden of Eden, the New Heavens, the New Jerusalem. And it was then that man could truly enter into the Holy of Holies.

1 comment:

Patrick Stone said...

This is a reply to a friend of mine regarding this blog. Basically I agree with him that the pre-Parousia saints could enter spiritually into the presence of God (Holy of Holies). But I maintain that the book of Revelation teaches that the Holy of Holies was separate...the conclusion is that in the Book of Revelation, the separation has to do with the deceased saints in Paradise before their resurrection as opposed to anything to do with the living saints (which is what the Hebrew typology refers).

email below:

Let's continue with our debate about the holy of holies first. Now I will first admit that I agree that the veil was rent in c 30 AD at the death, resurrection, and accension of Christ. I have no qualms there. I will even admit that their is scriptural evidence in support of Christians being able to enter the holy of holies in heaven SPIRITUALLY after the 30 AD as well.

But I remain firm that Revelation is clear that the post-30AD heavenly temple was a mirror of the tabernacle / temple with its inner court, holy place and holy of holies. And that the heavenly tabernacle changed profoundly post-Parousia (70 AD), becoming like the original Garden of Eden. I don't think there is any question that this implies that the pre - 70 AD heaven was different from the post - 70AD heaven, and that the difference was related to there being SOME MANNER OF DIVISION / SEPARATION in the pre-70 AD Heaven. Even the book of Hebrews, from which this debate stems, argues that the symbolism of the Holy Place was separation from God.

In addition there is 1 Cor 15
1Cor 15:51 Behold, I shew you a mystery; We shall not all sleep, but we shall all be changed,

> 1Cor 15:52 In a moment, in the twinkling of an eye, at the last trump: for the trumpet shall sound, and the dead shall be raised incorruptible, and we shall be changed.

and

1The 4:13 But I would not have you to be ignorant, brethren, concerning them which are asleep, that ye sorrow not, even as others which have no hope.
1The 4:14 For if we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so them also which sleep in Jesus will God bring with him.
1The 4:15 For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive [and] remain unto the coming of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep.
1The 4:16 For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first:
1The 4:17 Then we which are alive [and] remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord.

Both of these indicate that Paul believed that there was some difference between pre-parousia and post-parousia living saints as well as deceased saints. (I would also argue, although this is a separate point, that he makes a distinction between deceased saints and being alive at the Parousia, so how can the Parousia be equated to being with Christ at death, unless I misinterpret how Idealist's interpret this?).

Now what we have here is an apparent conflict. John saw heaven as divided before the Parousia, while the author of Hebrews (and Paul as you have shown) saw it as open and accessible. Even if you are Idealist, you must admit that this conflict exists and must be resolved (I do not accept your analysis that my argument is a "nuanced take on a vague passage in an apocalyptic work.") Now I postulate that the difference is related to what Paul stated would occur at the Parousia...the resurrection of the dead and the bodily transformation of the believers.

My proposal is this...whereas the author of Hebrews (and Paul) saw access to Heaven as open to Christians, they were always referring to spiritual access. That is, their spirits could freely enter into the holy of holies (through the blood of Christ, in the Spirit, through the veil, etc...). John's vision of heaven revealed that Heaven still maintained a degree of separation...but this was not referring to the spiritual access of believers. It was referring to the status of the dead, at the time. Heaven becoming 'opened' like the Garden of Eden, is equivalent to the resurrection (in fact occurs after the second resurrection of the dead). The marriage of the bride to the Lamb also is equivalent to the resurrection, since it entails the bride (deceased saints) being taken back to the bridal chamber (holy of holies) to become one with Christ (separation removed). The deceased saints can be shown to be in Paradise (whether in soul sleep or not I think is irrelevant) before the Parousia. Paul said they were "asleep," but I think the point is they were somehow still separated from God.

The livings saints "changed," in that they would no longer go to the place of Paradise (where there was separation from God) but to Heaven, immediatley united with God and Christ.

The only scripture I can think of contrary to this is

2Cor 5:8 We are confident, [I say], and willing rather to be absent from the body, and to be present with the Lord.

But even this can be shown to be related to the second coming, two verses down:

2Cor 5:9 Wherefore we labour, that, whether present or absent, we may be accepted of him. {labour: or, endeavour}
2Cor 5:10 For we must all appear before the judgment seat of Christ; that every one may receive the things [done] in [his] body, according to that he hath done, whether [it be] good or bad.